There are many possible interpretations of the passage—in particular of his comment about Lady Macbeth’s death. One answer will draw on Macbeth’s lines immediately preceding the soliloquy in question. In the past, he claims, a sound such as Lady Macbeth’s shriek of death would have shocked him deeply, but at present he has become unmoved and apathetic. Macbeth still seems to believe that the future holds peace for his reign. At the same time, he seems to have already accepted Lady Macbeth’s death as inevitable. What does this calm acceptance say about how his character has changed?
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